Let us assume that a macroscopic electron passes by a macroscopic proton at a high speed.
p
e- • ------> v
| q
v
b = impact factor v' gained
● proton+ velocity
We have two classical phenomena which affect the scattering amplitude and work to opposite directions:
1. The effective inertial mass of the electron is less because its far field does not have time to react to the pull of th7e proton. The electron will move a little closer to the proton and obtain more momentum q downward in the diagram.
2. The electron will accelerate downward toward the proton and radiate electromagnetic waves. This "friction" slows down the electron's descent toward the proton. The electron gains less momentum q from the proton.
If the electron moves almost at the speed of light, and gains a very large momentum q from the proton, then it does not need to give kinetic energy to the far field immediately – but the far field will "break free" and is radiated away. At suitable values of v and q, these two effects should be roughly equal, and cancel each other.
The kinetic energy saved by not moving the far field
We assume that v is much less than c. Let us use the values of a real electron, and pretend that they are macroscopic. The fly-by lasts roughly
t = 2 b / v.
Light moves the distance
R = c / v * 2 b
in that time.
The mass of the electron far field at the distance R is
m = rₑ / R * mₑ
= 1 / (4 π ε₀) * e² / c²
= 1 / (4 π ε₀) * e² / c³ * v / (2 b).
The electron gains a velocity v' downward, besides its horizontal velocity v.
The electron temporarily "saves" the kinetic energy
1 / (4 π ε₀) * e² / c³ * v / (2 b) * 1/2 v'²,
and can accelerate slightly faster vertically toward the proton, as it passes the proton.
The energy lost to radiation
The acceleration v-dot is
a = v' / t.
The energy
P t = 2/3 * 1 / (4 π ε₀) * e² / c³ * v'² / t
= 1 / (4 π ε₀) * e² / c³ * v / (2 b) * 2/3 v'².
The formula is the same as for the "saved" kinetic energy, except that we instead of 1/2 have 2/3!
Our model was extremely crude. A more precise evaluation may find the values to be exactly the same? Probably not.
In our blog we have noted that zitterbewegung and the classical vertex correction explain the anomalous magnetic moment of the electron. If the electron cannot radiate, then the vertex correction might exist without the bremsstrahlung correction canceling it.
The classical vertex correction is the same as the bremsstrahlung correction? No
We have been saying that the far field of the electron does not have time to react, and that the electron can save kinetic energy because it does not need to accelerate the far field. Could this lead to non-conservation of energy unless the exact same energy is spent on generating bremsstrahlung?
When opposite charges approach each other, the energy released can be calculated either from the Coulomb force, or by integrating the energy density of the joint electric field of the charges.
If the fields would update infinitely fast, then the Coulomb force calculation would always give the exact same result as the field energy integration.
Energy conservation requires:
Ekin-i + Vi + Ekin-o + Vo = constant.
E denotes the kinetic energy of the electron electric field, i denotes inner and o outer, and V denotes the integral of the joint electric field energy density.
Suppose that we are able to save the energy in Ekin-o and that energy goes to Ekin-i.
We can then harvest the entire kinetic energy quickly from the electron, and also harvest the extra Vo. To rescue energy conservation, the electron must lose the extra Vo as bremsstrahlung.
But is the extra Vo the same as Ekin-o?
Let us assume that the electron and the proton have the same absolute charge, and we move them very close to each other.
Let R be the distance from the electron and the proton, and R is much larger than their distance from each other.
The energy of the dipole field outside R is
~ 1 / R³.
But the mass-energy of the electron electric field (and if it moves, also magnetic) outside R is
~ 1 / R.
These formulae are very different. The far dipole field cannot give the kinetic energy to the electron far field. Thus, we cannot prove that the bremsstrahlung correction must equal the vertex correction.
Comparison to quantum electrodynamics: QED has sign errors in the vertex correction and the bremsstrahlung correction
Various papers about QED claim that the infrared divergences of soft bremsstrahlung and the QED vertex correction cancel each other out in the scattering cross section. We noted in the summer of 2025, that the cancellation really cannot happen. In principle, we can observe soft protons of an infinitesimal energy. They cannot cancel out something which is elastic scattering: the vertex correction.
We have remarked that the QED process in each individual history sends out many soft photons at a time, but the Feynman rules count them as non-overlapping probabilities. This is wrong, and causes the sum of probabilities to diverge.
Anyway, the general idea that the effects of the vertex correction and bremsstrahlung approximately cancel each other out in the scattering cross section, is true classically, and might be true in QED, too.
Various QED papers claim that the vertex correction reduces the scattering cross section. That must be wrong, since classically, it increases the cross section. There is a sign error in QED.
A similar sign error must exist in QED treatments of bremsstrahlung, if it cancels out the QED vertex correction.
Why a sign error? The renormalization procedure in QED corrections is ad hoc. It can easily flip the sign of corrections.
The electron is equivalent to its inner electric field?
All the mass of the electron seems to be in its electric field. This suggests that we should treat the electron somewhat like we treat the electromagnetic field.
We can construct the outer electromagnetic field of the electron from hammer strikes: Green's functions. Maybe we should construct the electron in a similar way, as hammer strikes which create the inner field close to the electron?
This is a classical model which might explain what does the propagator of the electron mean classically.
The Poynting vector tells us the energy and the momentum flows in the electromagnetic field of the electron. What is the role of the point particle electron, if all its mass is in its field? The electron is where the charge lies.
The charge tends to go to the lowest potential of the field. If the mass of the charge is zero, it goes there very quickly. This shows that the field is primary, the charge obeys the orders of the field.
The electron propagator is the propagator of its inner field? What is the inner field propagator like?
In our previous blog post we introduced the "scalar electron" whose propagator is the same as the electromagnetic propagator.
The Dirac equation aims to describe a relativistic particle with mass. It would not be a surprise if the inner field propagator is the electron propagator.
When a hammer hits a rubber membrane, the membrane can go "off-shell": it is bent and does not form a natural sine wave. The hit also makes the hammer off-shell – the hammer is bent, too.
A hit produces a spectrum of Fourier components in the electromagnetic field. It also produces a spectrum of waves in the inner field of the electron. Could this be a classical explanation for the Feynman integral?
If k is a Fourier component, then the outer electromagnetic field gets the hit k, and the inner field the hit -k.
What about the fact that the inner field is local, occupies a very small volume?
k virtual photon
~~~~~~~~
/ \
/ A B \
scalar e- ------------------------------------------------
p -k + p | -k + p + q
|
|
| q virtual photon
proton+ ------------------------------------------------
When the scalar electron approaches the proton, the outer field and the inner field of the scalar electron start to clash: the inner field wants to go closer to the proton, the outer field is not interested.
Both parts of the field will go off-shell: they are bent relative to their undisturbed state.
In the Feynman diagram, the line k and the electron line merge again. This might indicate an "easy absorption" of the off-shell k wave?
Eventually all the off-shell k have to be absorbed by the electron. That may be a more complex, possibly a non-perturbative process.
If |k| is very large, then k has to be absorbed very quickly. The momentum exchange q in the diagram is misleading: the exchange of q happens gradually. For a large |k|, the real q is infinitesimal: only a very small momentum exchange dq happens before the absorption. Thus, the correct value for the Feynman integral for large |k| is identical to the infinitesimal q case. The integral value does not change. This is yet another way to explain why large |k| can be discarded.
Absorption of k: q treated non-perturbatively
k virtual photon
~~~~~~~~
/ \
/ A B \
scalar e- -----------------------------------------------
p -k + p | -k + p + q
|
|
| q virtual photon
proton+ -----------------------------------------------
1. In the diagram, the line A is born from a hammer strike. We can imagine that q is a "catalyst" of that "spontaneous" hammer strike.
The spectrum of the strike is the product of the propagators of the outer field (k) and the inner field (the electron).
2. We can imagine that q is absorbed non-perturbatively. No hammer strike there.
3. The line B ends in a hammer strike which the photon k wields on the inner field. The spectrum of that strike does not need the outer field propagator (for k), but it needs the inner field propagator. We assume that the propagator is symmetric: converting an on-shell electron to the off-shell state -k + p + q has the same probability as the inverse reaction.
In this model, the propagator of B is not associated with the absorption of q. This allows us to treat q non-perturbatively, which takes us closer to a classical model.
Let us assume this: various k are born from the movement of the electron along a path whose length is the wavelength of k. If the wavelength of k is short, then the electron can absorb k very quickly, so that k does not affect the scattering amplitude in any way. We can concentrate on k which have a long wavelength.
We are still far away from understanding how the crude hammer srike model is able to calculate the sophisticated, non-perturbative inertial mass reduction for the electron. Could it be a lucky coincidence?
Suspicious sign flips in the Feynman integral: Feynman rules are wrong?
The scalar electron propagator is
1 / (E² - p'² - mₑ²),
where we have denoted the energy in p by E and the spatial momentum in p by p'. We assume c = 1.
Let k and q be pure spatial momentum ,and |k| small. If
|-k + p'| > |p'|,
then the electron in the line A is off-shell, and the propagator for A has a large negative value. It may be that
|-k + p' + q| < |p' + q|,
which means that the propagator for B has a large positive value.
If we turn the direction of k, the product of the propagators flips the sign. Feynman integrals interpret that the phase of the electron wave changes by 180 degrees, if the sign flips.
It is reasonable that the phase of the electron can drastically change through tuning a tiny virtual photon k?
The phase of a wave flips in classical mechanics if it is reflected from a solid wall. How can a tiny k constitute a solid wall?
Electron self-energy: no phase change should be possible
k
~~~~~~
/ \
e- -------------------------------------->
p
In our blog we have remarked that in the self-energy diagram, a virtual photon k can make the phase of the electron to flip 180 degrees if it flips the sign of the electron propagator. That is absurd. How can a particle on its own flip its phase, without interacting with the outside world?
Feynman diagrams are based on the impulse response of the field equation, that is, the Green's function. But what decides if the impulse has a positive sign or a negative sign?
Classical analogue. Let us investigate a classical analogue.
___________________________________ string 2
| |
_ | |
_ / \________|___________|______ string 1
\__/ bar A bar B
The wave in the tense string 1 interacts through two vertical bars A and B, with the tense string 2. We assume that the interaction transfers some of the energy of the wave temporarily to string 2, but the same energy returns back to string 1.
Can the phase change?
The interaction at A creates a small wave to string 2. The original wave loses some of its amplitude.
If the wave in string 2 would travel slower or faster than in string 1, then string 2 would absorb some mass-energy displacement (mass times distance) from the temporary wave in it. That should not be possible for a virtual photon. There is no mass which would permanently change place in empty space.
We can assume that the wave in string 2 travels at the same speed as in string 1. In our example, the wave in string 2 will have the same phase as in string 1. When the wave in string 2 is absorbed back to string 2, the phase has not changed at all.
We can imagine that the field of an electron is an elastic plate which it carries attached to itself. However the electron interacts with its plate, its momentum does not change. If the electron and the plate return to their originl state, an outside observer cannot know anything about a possible interaction earlier within the electron & plate system. This suggests that the phase cannot change.
Let us then analyze the impulse responses in the classical example.
String 1 at bar A feels that the bar resists the movement of the string. We could say that the impulse is negative to string 1.
When string 1 absorbs the wave back at B, we can say that the impulse is positive.
The partial wave in string 1, caused by the impulse, does have a 180 degree phase shift relative to the original wave. It destroys a part of the original wave. We can call it a "negative" wave.
But when the wave in string 2 is absorbed back to string 1, it destroys the negative wave. No phase change to the original wave.
Waves in spacetime. Let us then investigate a virtual photon emission and absorption using waves in a volume of spacetime:
------ e- scattered scattered
\ \ ------ Dirac wave
\ \ (absorbed k and
\ \ returned to original)
k photon
\ \ e- scattered Dirac
\ \ wave (absorbed -k)
----------------
\ \ ---------------- e- original
\ \ ---------------- Dirac wave
\ \ k photon
^ t
|
-----> x
The first scattering can be understood backward in time: the photon k and the scattered Dirac wave arrive from the future, and the Dirac wave scatters from it (absorbs k backward in time) and becomes the original Dirac wave.
Run forward in time, we see the original Dirac wave emitting k, scattering from the photon it itself created.
In the second scattering, the scattered Dirac scatters from k which it itself emitted, and returns to the original wave.
When the Dirac wave scatters from a photon, it may well be that it gets a 180 degree phase shift relative to the original Dirac wave. Since there are two scatterings, the phase shift is canceled.
Feynman rules seem to forget that both scatterings cause the same phase shift.
Let us return to the vertex correction diagram. For classical waves, it is not possible that a small interaction with anything can flip the phase of a big wave. The Feynman rule which causes sign flips is incorrect for classical waves.
The error in the Feynman sign rule for the electron propagator. What is the error in the Feynman rule? Strings 1 and 2 cause an impulse on each other at bar A. The "negative wave" in string 1 has a 180 degree phase change. The Green's function associated with the impulse has positive and negative signs for various Fourier components in string 1. A negative sign marks a phase change.
But when the wave in string 2 is absorbed back to string 1, the absorption destroys the negative wave. The original wave is preserved intact.
This is a serious error in Feynman rules. Is it so that the vertex correction integral does not calculate anything sensible?
The electron self-energy calculation is nonsensical in QED, as we have noted before. An emission and an absorption of a virtual photon cannot change anything. The correct integral calculation would tell us that nothing changes.
What does the vertex correction calculate in QED?
The "waves in spacetime" diagram does make sense, if we correct possible sign errors in Feynman rules. What does the Feynman integral calculate in the vertex correction?
k virtual photon
~~~~~~~~
/ \
1 / A B \ 2
scalar e- -----------------------------------------------
p -k + p | -k + p + q
|
|
| q virtual photon
proton+ -----------------------------------------------
If q is infinitesimal, then the diagram essentially is the self-energy diagram. The integral calculates something which does not have any effect. Virtual photons k have no effect on anything.
Let |k| be relatively small. Then the we could imagine that k and the line A originate from a hammer strike by the electron. It is enough to hit the electromagnetic field at relatively large time intervals, to keep the field roughly constant ~ 1 / r far away. Small |k| are associated with the far field.
1. The strike at the position marked by 1 in the diagram means an impulse both to the electromagnetic field and the Dirac field. The propagator for k tells how "big" is the Fourier component k in the "spectrum" created by the impulse.
2. The counter-impulse creates a wave in the Dirac field at 1. If we assume that the impulse is very large, then we can assume that the entire electron wave is recreated at 1. The electron propagator tells how big is the component -k + p.
3. The off-shell electron passes close to the proton, and the entire wave turns its direction, so that its momentum becomes -k + p + q. This is non-perturbative.
4. The second hammer strike at 2 creates a Fourier component p + q at a probability amplitude which is the propagator of -k + p + q. We assume a symmetry of the propagator from on-shell => off-shell and to the opposite direction.
5. The amplitude of the electron in A exchanging a virtual photon k with the electron in B is the square of the coupling constant times the propagator for k.
The "flux" through the process above. The flux of the electron wave is the product of the propagators for -k + p and -k + p + q. Let us denote a propagator by G.
The propagator of the photon k tells how big is that Fourier component. The product
G(-k + p) * G(-k + p + q) * G(k) * e²
tells the probability that the photon k interacts with both the initial electron and the final electron wave.
*** WORK IN PROGRESS ***






